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How Fixed Odds are Calculated for DFS

Understanding how Outlier arrives at the presented odds for DFS markets like PrizePicks and Underdog.

Chris Tashjian avatar
Written by Chris Tashjian
Updated over 9 months ago

The following are payouts for the various PrizePicks offerings:

2 Hits

3 Hits

4 Hits

5 Hits

6 Hits

2-Pick Power Play‍

3X

N/A

N/A

N/A

N/A

3-Pick Power Play‍

N/A

5X

N/A

N/A

N/A

4-Pick Power Play‍

N/A

N/A

10X

N/A

N/A

3-Pick Flex Play

1.25X

2.25X

N/A

N/A

N/A

4-Pick Flex Play

N/A

1.5X

5X

N/A

N/A

5-Pick Flex Play

N/A

0.4X

2X

10X

N/A

6-Pick Flex Play

N/A

N/A

0.4X

2X

25X

Calculating PrizePicks Power Play Odds

Let’s start with calculating the per-leg odds for a simpler case, a Power Play. We will calculate the 4-Pick Power Play per leg odds. Let p be the probability of a single leg hitting. These are each independent events and only one way for this to happen (all 4 hit), so its simply:

If we bet $1 with 10X payout, we need $1 to break-even, so:

Solving for p:

This means that each leg must have a 56.23% chance of hitting to break-even on the payout, which is equal to American odds of about -128.

Calculating PrizePicks Flex Play Odds

Now lets take the more complex cases into account, the Flex Plays. We will model the 5-Pick Flex Play. We have 3 different potential payout scenarios. Lets start with the simplest, all 5 legs hitting. There is only one way for this to happen as well, every leg hits. So for this component of the payout, the math is again simple:

The next scenario is when exactly 4 legs hit. Here the math becomes a little more complex, as there are multiple ways this could happen (5 ways to be exact). To calculate this, we need to use Binomial Distribution Formula, which reads as follows:

Where P is the binomial probability, x the specific successful outcomes, {n \choose x} the number of combinations, p the probability of success (same definition as p before), q the probability of failure, and n the total number of trials. Breaking this down once more, our total combinations (known as the binomial coefficient) is:

There are no pushes on these bets, so the probability of losing a leg (q) is simply 1 - p. Plugging in all our numbers:

We can simplify this a bit to:

Finally, we can do the same exercise for 3 legs to hit in a 5-Pick Flex play:

Which we can simplify to:

Finally, lets take our payouts (10X, 2X, and 0.4X) and model a break-even where we bet $1:

Expanding (1-p)^2 to p^2-2p + 1:

The real solution to this is approximately:

This means that each leg must have a 54.25\% chance of hitting to break-even on the payout, which is equal to American odds of about -119.

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